It will depend upon what the husband intended by the monies. If the money is held in a joint account with the husband, the funds will pass to the husband. Provided there are no issues on domicile, the passing of the asset to the husband would be tax neutral. It will also depend on what the husband intended by stating the wife's name - did he intend for her to have a beneficial entitlement? If so, how much? Was any income from the account declared on the wife's annual tax returns? If there is any beneficial entitlement (be it 1p) received by the wife, this needs to be declared to HMRC. The value declared depends on the evidence and the husband's intentions. Have you also checked that there was no document severing ownership to tenants in common registered with the bank or HMRC, which is done for income tax planning on occasions. I hope that this is of assistance.